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Can a woman get pregnant with little amount of pre-semen?

Just to clear things up, I, the man, has ejaculated within the last 36-48 hours before this incident happened. So I assume all the sperm in my pre-semen were already flushed out through urination. Is this right?

I asked my girlfriend if she wanted to start an intercourse but she refused. But before that, I rubbed my penis(with pre-semen already present) at her clitoris then down to her vagina wall, didn't penetrate at all, for like 3-5 seconds. Then after 4-5mins, I rubbed her vagina with my fingers(didn't touch my penis so my fingers didn't contain pre-semen).

And we also did this at the 2nd day of her ovulation. This happened on Nov.29, but her ovulation started Nov.28, if the mid-phase of the cycle is the time of ovulation.

Any thoughts? Can i impregnate my girlfriend with only this? Answers would be appreciated. Thanks in advance.
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replied December 20th, 2012
Hello,

Welcome to ehealthforum and thanks for writing

First of all it is a misconception that ejaculation anytime before would release all the sperms and pregnancy would not occur because new sperms are being formed constantly after the release. Regarding the pregnancy during and nearing ovulation chances are always high as sperms can survive in the female genital tract for about five days.

It is difficult to comment regarding pregnancy right now as chances are there.
Just ask your partner to wait for the periods right now and if they are missed then get a Urine test done for pregnancy determination.

Take care!


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