Yes, it is possible that there was pre-ejaculate, and it is possible that she is pregnant. Every single time you have sex there is that chance, even if you do not ejaculate. We can't really give you any exact figures on how likely it is since it depends on too many factors. The only way to know if she is pregnant is to wait a bit, then take a pregnancy test.

Hello, My girlfriend and I had sex yesterday. Her first day of her period (men. bleeding) was on May 27, 2007. During out intercourse on June 12th, 2007, I realized that the condom had broke but I failed to ejaculate in her. Is it possible that I may have produced "preseminal fluids?" If so, what are the chances of her becoming pregant?

Using that information....(the dates) did we have sex during her the time to "most likely" become pregnant or is it the least likely time?

If she has a perfectly accurate 28 day cycle with ovulation occurring around day 14-16, then she might have been on the tail end of being fertile. So she might have been a little fertile, but not at peak fertility.

Keep in mind, however, that ovulation is a very funny thing. Most women have no idea when they are ovulating. Many women do not have the typical 28 day cycle with ovulation occurring occurring around day 14-16. That pattern is sort of the standard ovulation model, but ovulation and the female cycle does not run like clockwork. That means anything is possible. Some women even get pregnant when they have sex during their period!

I had sex of the third day of ovulation, i have a 27 day cycle. My ovulation starts 18 days after my cycle. He pulled out but i'm scared about the whole pre cum?