HI everyone. I'm new to this and not sure if I'm even posting my question correctly....but here goes...
My ovulation dates are/were August 29- Sept 3, with a most fertile day on Sept 1. My husband and I have had sex on the 29th, 30th, 31...NOT THE 1ST, and the 2nd. And we will be doing it again tonight, the 3rd. My question is even though we didn't have intercourse of my most fertile day, do you think it's still possible?? Someone once told me that by us doing it on the 31st alone is good enough, because she said it takes 24 hours to happen anywyas.....is this true?