Okay so here is a run-down on what happened:

Her period began on Feb 12th.
We had sex on Feb 15th. No action was taken.
We had sex again on Mar 10th.
She took the first dosage of the morning-after pill on Mar 12th.
It's Mar 16th right now and her period still hasn't come.

On the first occasion, she was still bleeding the next morning because of her period. According to http://www.fhi.org/pic/mencycle.gif, we had sex on the 3rd or 4th tile, which is not in the "Fertile Time". Let's assume that this graph is inaccurate, so pretend the fertile time stretches from the 7th and 17th tile.

I've also heard that sperm can live in the girl for 3 days? So if we had sex on the 3rd or 4th tile, it may have stayed over into the fertile time, the 7th tile.

The thing is, I was pretty drunk on Feb 15th. For me, I'm around 50% sure I didn't ejaculate because it's hard for me to ejaculate when i'm intoxicated.

As for the occasion on March 10th, she took the first pill 2 days later at 7:00 pm, and the second pill the next morning at 7:00 am. Referring to the menstrual cycle chart in the link earlier, this would be at the 24th tile, also out of the fertile time zone.

According to http://www.nyabortion.com/birthcontrol/the morningpill.shtml#6, "Women using the morning-after pill may experience a change in their next period. It may come early, on time, or be late. Most women will get their period 7 to 9 days after treatment."

Right now I'm extremely nervous and worried because we both do not want a child or complications. In what light should I be looking at this situation?