Have 100 doctors, a ph.d., and endless information available on the internet, but can't seem to get a clean, non-sugar-coated response. I am 32, good health, very active, all other normal labs (except hypothyroid and borderline low FSH of 3), but recently diagnosed with very low free and bioavailable testosterone. I hadn't even realized I had the symptoms, because normal had become skewed, in retrospect. Low levels were very sub-normal; in fact, I've had a 50% increase over the past month and I'm still only 1 point over the normal line (on a scale up to and over 600). So, my question is the following: Nobody did a sperm count prior to starting me on test therapy (one month ago), so I don't know if I was infertile when I started (although, I'd appreciate a hypothesis). It has been determined that this was not congenital and isn't pituitary...just somehow happened (never took steroids or anything like that). Also, I know I was fertile 10 years ago for reasons that can be implied, here. What is the likelihood that I was infertile, already, at the time the labs were done (I have two years worth that show it was low, but nothing prior)? Also, what is the likelihood that I will be rendered infertile in the future, knowing my baselne is very low and I'm now on test cypionate indefinitely? Sorry for long post...I would like kids, someday, and would just like to know where I stand.