I am about to enter into a relationship with a 48 year old male. He recently informed me that he only engages in sexual relations with condoms, however when he was 22 he had "lesions" apparently caused by HPV removed. At that time (26 yrs ago), the doctor removed them and gave him no further information on it. I am also 48 and when I was 18, I had what the doctor called "cold warts" removed, I suspect now that I am reading stuff that they also may have been caused by the HPV virus. Apparently neither of us have had any issues since then. I should mention that I have been in a marriage up until recently where each was faithful but simply outgrew each other.
He also was in a long term relationship in his thirties with a woman whom had pre cancerous lesions removed from her cervix prior to her knowing him. As they were in a long term relationship, condoms were not used after six months or so into it.
We have been together for a bit however geographical issues have limited our access to each other. He is concerned because he believes he may still carries the genital virus and possibly the cervical kind since he had unprotected sex with the long term woman, so feels we should continue with condoms even if we extend into a one one one long term relationship so as not to put myself at risk.
1. After all these years and no outbreaks in 26 years could he still possibly infect me or am I possibly also a carrier in light of the cold warts. 2. Because he slept with someone also that had cervical lesions removed prior to her relationship with him, is he at risk of giving me that
strain of HPV
Sorry to be so dumb on this, but have been out of the game for years so hadn't been a concern. Also should note I get PAP smears yearly and never have had an issue nor have I ever had any other issues other then the mystery "cold warts". Please advise if anyone has helpful information on this. I would eventually prefer a condom free relationship if possible.