I'll try to be brief. First, I haven't seen an MD in 23 years so please refrain from the "see your doctor" thing. I am a 51 year old white male, somewhat muscular and still quite athletic. I am able to get blood chem profiles without a doc, and I have had them done many times over the years (started getting them done in 1986 and did them every year till 1992, then didn't get another one till this week). My serum creatinine has always been 1.2-1.4, (still have copies of all my past reports) with it usually 1.3, as it was again this week, after 16 years of not testing, so I assume it's stayed about this same level all these years.

But according to all these little simple formulas available for estimating gfr, I supposedly have kidney disease, simply based on my gender, race and serum creatinine level. I do have bubbly urine (not frothy or foamy, just bubbly), but I think it's always been that way. I also had a complete medical workup in 1985 (three nights in hospital--diagnosis: anxiety). This workup included complete abdominal cat scan with dye injected for the kidneys to show up well on the image, 24-hour urine tests, and a bunch of other tests too---all normal apparently. I feel quite sure that my creatinine level was in the same range then as now (in 1986 it was 1.4). My guess is that these levels are just normal for me. Any good feedback appreciated. Another thing I forgot to mention is that it seems strange that the formulas tell me almost stage 3 CKD, while the creatinine range on may lab report states normal values up to 1.5! Something seem very inconsistent about all this.