My husband has been diagnosed with epididymitis which the doctor said was caused from the colon as his urine was clear. If my husband has not been sexually active with me, could he have contracted epididymitis from someone else; i.e. sexual anal intercourse? As a couple, there has been doubt to his true sexuality so I was wondering if he could have contracted from a gay affair as we haven't had sexual intercourse in years.
Hi there. Thanks for posting on Ehealthforum. Could you be mistaken, I wonder, when you thought the doctor said your husband's epididymitis was "caused from the colon"? Because frankly that does not make any sense. In general the exact origins of epididymitis is not known. It can come from any site within the genito-urinary tract including to prostate gland, the ejaculatory ducts or bladder. But it does not come from the intestine nor is it unique to or commoner in any particular sexual orientation group. I hope that helps.
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