My boyfriend of 8 years recently developed conjunctivitis in his eyes. After seeing the doctor he was sent to the eye hospital. tests were carried out for various things including chlamydia (this struck us as strange so we thought nothing more of it). Today however the test has came back positive.

Does this mean it was caught recently from somehow getting the infection in his eye from someone who has it (i.e them touching something, him touching it then rubbing his eye)or does it mean he has had it for at least 8 years with no symptoms (i,m assuming that means i have it too as we dont use condoms)??

my real question is this - all of the web sites say that prolonged untreated infection can cause infertility but how long are they talking about??