I had an abnormal when going in for a routine pap smear October 2010 with my GP. I got a referral from my GP to a OB/GYN in my town in which she performed a colposcopy. When she applied the iodine/acidic solution to my cervix she stated that she "didn't see any abnormalities on my cervix so opted not to take sample tissue for biopsy". Is this normal? My first abnormal pap came back as ASCUS High HPV. Three months after having my colposcopy I went back in for another pap and it to came back as ASCUS High HPV detected. Could this be a result of dysplasia? What types of changes does dysplasia do to the cervix itself? I was reading on the internet that HPV is linked to cervical cancer, and now I'm freaking out because I have this pain in my leg (right leg) and comes and goes but the pain can sometimes be felt around my buttock as well, I am trying to self diagnose self at this time (fibroids, sciatic nerve, etc.). It's hard not to think the worse in a situation like this, I am going to another OB/GYN to get a second opinion, but did my first doctor follow protocol or could her lack of judgement cost me in the long run?
Dysplasia causes changes in the nature and epithelium of cells.HPV does predispose to cervical cancer but it does not mean that every patient would have cancer.In my opinion it would have been better if the treating Gynaec had taken the sample for study as by just observation the exact changes cannot be predicted.It might also be possible that the changes would not be there and the Pap would be normal.
I would advise you to take a second opinion from another Gynaecologist.
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